CUET Biology Questions – MCQ’s PDF Download
Check out CUET important Biology questions for the month of may.
Q.1. Which of the following can be expected to produce 25 tonnes of protein?
Q.2. The testes in humans are situated outside the abdominal cavity inside a pouch called scrotum. The purpose served is for
(a) maintaining the scrotal temperature lower than the internal body temperature
(b) escaping any possible compression by the visceral organs
(c) providing more space for the growth of epididymis
(d) providing a secondary sexual feature for exhibiting the male sex.
Q.3. In Hardy-Weinberg equation, the frequency of heterozygous individual is represented by
(a) p2 (b) 2pq
(c) pq (d) q2
Q.4. What is the correct sequence of the formation of female gametophyte in angiosperms?
(a) Nucellus, megaspore tetrad, megaspore mother cell, megaspore, female gametophyte
(b) Megaspore tetrad, nucellus, megaspore mother cell, megaspore, female gametophyte
(c) Nucellus, megaspore mother cell, megaspore tetrad, megaspore, female gametophyte
(d) Megaspore mother cell, megaspore tetrad, megaspore, nucellus, female gametophyte.
Q.5. Some important events in the human female reproductive cycle are given below. Arrange the events in a proper sequence A -Secretion of FSH, B – Growth of corpus luteum, C – Growth of the follicle and oogenesis, D – Ovulation, E – Sudden increase in the levels of LH
(a) A → D → C → E → B
(b) B → A → C → D → E
(c) C → A → D → B → E
(d) A → C → E → D → B
Q.6. Find the correct order of biomagnification of DDT in an aquatic food chain.
(a) Water (0.003 ppm), zooplankton (0.5 ppm), small fish (0.04 ppm), large fish (2 ppm), fish eating birds (25 ppm)
(b) Water (0.003 ppb), zooplankton (0.04 ppm), small fish (0.5 ppm), large fish (2 ppm), fish eating birds (25 ppm)
(c) Water (0.003 ppm), fish eating birds (25 ppm), zooplankton (0.5 ppm), small fish (0.04 ppm), large fish (25 ppm)
(d) Water (0.003 ppm), small fish (0.04 ppm), zooplankton (0.5 ppm), large fish (2 ppm), fish eating birds (25 ppm)
Q.7. Find the sequence of binding of the following aminoacyl tRNA complexes during translation to mRNA transcribed by a DNA segment having the base sequences 3′TACATGGGTCCG5′
Choose the answer showing the correct order of alphabets.
(a) C, D, B, A (b) A, B, D, C
(c) D, C, A, B (d) B, A, D, C
Q.8. Progestasert is an IUD which makes the uterus unsuitable and cervix hostile to the sperms as they are
(a) hormone releasing IUDs
(b) copper releasing IUDs
(c) ideal contraceptive
(d) non-medicated IUDs.
Q.9. The eye of octopus and eye of cat show different patterns of structure, yet they perform similar function. This is an example of
(a) analogous organs that have evolved due to convergent evolution.
(b) analogous organs that have evolved due to divergent evolution.
(c) homologous organs that have evolved due to convergent evolution.
(d) homologous organs that have evolved due to divergent evolution.
Check out CUET important Biology questions for the month of april.
Q.1. Read statements A and B and select the correct option.
Statement A: Synthesis of mRNA takes place in 5′ – 3′ direction.
Statement B: Reading of mRNA is always in 3′ – 5′ direction.
(a) Statement A is correct but statement B is incorrect.
(b) Both statements A and B are correct.
(c) Statement A is incorrect but statement B is correct.
(d) Both statements A and B are incorrect.
Q.2. Read the following statements and choose the correct option.
A. Increase in melanized moths after industrialisation in Great Britain is a proof for natural selection.
B. When more individuals of a population acquire a mean character value, it is called disruption.
C. Changes in allelic frequency in a population will lead to Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
D. Genetic drift changes the existing gene or allelic frequency in future generations.
(a) A and D alone are correct.
(b) A and C alone are correct.
(c) B and D alone are correct.
(d) B alone is correct.
Q.3. Match the causative organisms with their diseases.
(A) Haemophilus influenzae (1) Malignant malaria
(B) Entamoeba histolytica (2) Elephantiasis
(C) Plasmodium falciparum (3) Pneumonia
(D) Wuchereria bancrofti (4) Typhoid
(E) Salmonella typhi (5) Amoebiasis
(a) A – 1, B – 5, C – 3, D – 2, E – 4
(b) A – 3, B – 5, C – 1, D – 2, E – 4
(c) A – 5, B –1, C – 3, D – 4, E – 2
(d) A – 1, B – 3, C – 2, D – 5, E – 4
Q.4. The pollen grains of rice and wheat lose their viability in______ minutes of their release.
(a) 30 (b) 10 (c) 60 (d) 90
Q.5. How does vaccination work?
(a) The immune system produces antibodies which stay in the blood.
(b) Memory lymphocytes are produced. They remain in the body to fight off any future infection with the same pathogen.
(c) The dead pathogen stays in the body and constantly stimulates the immune system.
(d) All of the above.
Q.6. Which of the following is correct about secretory phase of human menstrual cycle?
(a) It is also called follicular phase and includes cycle days 6-13.
(b) It is also called proliferative phase and includes cycle days 13-26.
(c) It is also called luteal phase and includes cycle days 15 to 28.
(d) It is also called menstrual phase and includes cycle days 3-5
Q.7. During the process of artificial hybridisation if the female plant bears bisexual flowers, then emasculation is done with the help of forceps, which is
(a) removal of style from the flower bud before the anther dehiscence
(b) removal of style from the flower bud after the anther dehiscence
(c) removal of anthers from the flower bud before anther dehiscence
(d) removal of anthers from the flower bud after the anther dehiscence.
Q.8. The highest number of species amongst the following in the world is represented by
(a) fungi (b) mosses
(c) algae (d) lichens.
Q.9. Which of the following can be expected to produce 25 tonnes of protein?
Read More:Free Book Of CUET UG General Test (Arihant Book)
Check out CUET important Biology questions for the month of march.
Q.1. Damage to thymus in a child may lead to
(a) a reduction in the amount of plasma proteins
(b) loss of antibody mediated immunity
(c) loss of cell mediated immunity
(d) a reduction in the haemoglobin content in blood.
Q.2. Gel electrophoresis is used for the
(a) separation and isolation of DNA fragments
(b) construction of recombinant DNA by joining with cloning vectors
(c) culturing the host cells in a medium at a large scale
(d) replication of DNA.
Q.3. Assisted reproductive technology, IVF involves transfer of
(a) ovum into the Fallopian tube
(b) zygote into the Fallopian tube
(c) zygote into the uterus
(d) embryo with 16 blastomeres into the Fallopian tube
Q.4. Match column I with column II and select the correct option.
|Column I||Column II|
|A. Gemmules||1. Agave|
|B. Leaf-buds||2. Penicillium|
|C. Bulbil||3. Water hyacinth|
|D. Offset||4. Sponges|
|E. Conidia||5. Bryophyllum|
(a) A-4, B-5, C-1, D-3, E-2
(b) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1, E-5
(c) A-3, B-5, C-4, D-2, E-1
(d) A-4, B-1, C-5, D-3, E-2
Q.5. A person who has allergy, the type of antibody produced in his body is
(a) IgE (b) IgA (c) IgM (d) IgG
Q.6. Free living bacteria that can fix N2 from soil is
(a) Azospirillum (b) Azotobacter (c) Glomus (d) both (a) and (b)
Q.7. The fetal ejection reflex in humans triggers the release of
(a) oxytocin from fetal pituitary
(b) human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) from placenta
(c) human placental lactogen (hPL) from placenta
(d) oxytocin from maternal pituitary.
Q.8. A person admitted to hospital as he had myocardial infarction. A cardiologist injected him ‘streptokinase’, why?
(a) It stimulates heart beat.
(b) It reduces hypertension.
(c) It acts as clot buster.
(d) It reduces the level of blood cholesterol.
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